\[\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}{(1+\frac{3}{x})^{4x}}
\[\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}{(1+\frac{3}{x})^{4x}}\]
\[\lim_{x \to \infty} \left( 1 + \frac{3}{x}\right)^{4x}\]
hello
we know that ( 1 + 1/x ) ^x as x->oo is e
I didn't know that actually :-P
so me and the rest of those who know ;)
just pretend that you know ;)
what rules are you supposed to use anyway ?
I have no idea... it's a question that tests the convergence of a sequence.... and I am sure it does but I don't know the value it converges to.
lim ( 1 + 3/x) ^(4x) = [ 1 + 1 / ( x/3) ] ^4x
let u = x/3, as x->00, u->oo because oo/3 ->oo
true
lim ( 1 + 1/u ) ^ ( 4*3u)
lim [( 1 +1/u)^u ]^12 , so it will be e^12
that's the answer
Hey Perl If f(x) -> o (1 + f(x))^(g(x)) where g(x) tends to infinity it is equal to e^(g(x)*ln f(x)) right?
I still don't get it :-(
ishann, it depends
but youre right insofar as its an indeterminate form
agdg, basically 'we know' that ( 1 +1/x) ^x goes to e as x->oo, and we just use a substitution
agdg, it is usually given by the teacher
given : lim ( 1 +1/x) ^x as x->00 is e, this should be in your notes. you could try saying assume it has a limit , so y = ( 1 + 1/x) ^x , then ln y = x ln ( 1 + 1/x)
find the limit ln ( 1 + 1/x) / ( 1/x) as x->oo
you have 0/0, so now use Lhopital's rule
oooh alright
1/ ( 1 + x^-1) *-1*x^-2 * 1/ (-1*x^-2) now those cancel so we have
you are left with 1 / ( 1 + 1/x) , and the limit of that as x->oo is 1 , so ln y = 1, so y = e^1
now that we know lim (1 + 1/x) ^x is e, we can use a substitution to solve the original problem
yay I will impress my calc teacher thanks now I get it!
ishann, can you link your pdf
thats a powerful theorem, im not sure though it works for all cases
If f(x) -> o (1 + f(x))^(g(x)) where g(x) tends to infinity it is equal to e^(g(x)*ln f(x))... only under certain conditions
also im not sure how that helps in this problem
e^( 4x * ln ( 1/x) ) ?
e^(f(x)*g(x)) that is what I mean not the ln part sorry
take the log, take the limit, exponentiate although there is probably a snappier way to do it with your eyes
no you were right before, we were given f(x)^g(x), so we know that f(x)^g(x) = e^[ ln f(x)^g(x)]
so f(x)^g(x) = e^[ g(x) ln f(x) ]
if you want a guess i would say it is \[e^{12}\] it is surely e to the something
so find lim e^[ 4x ln ( 1 + 1/x) ]
so that doesnt really get us anywhere
not it can't be like that in my opinion y = (1 + f(x))^g(x) f(x) tends to zero while g(x) to infinity logy = g(x)log(1 + f(x)) but since f(x) tends to zero it must become log(1 + f(x)) tends to f(x) log y = g(x)*f(x) y = e^(f(x)*g(x))
start with \[4x\ln(1+\frac{x}{3})\] then rewrite as \[4\frac{\ln(\frac{3+x}{3})}{\frac{1}{x}}\] and use l\hopital
ishaan, but then you would get e^4 , which is false
log 1 = 0 but there we have 1 + f(x) where f(x) tends to zero it is near to zero but not zero so it has to be f(x) for the whole log(1 + f(x))
e^( 1/x * 4x ) = e^4
\[e^{\frac{3}{x}*4x} = e^{12}\]
but since f(x) tends to zero it must become log(1 + f(x)) tends to f(x) ?
log ( 1 + f(x)) ~ f(x) if f(x)->0 ?
yeah that is what I am thinking
it must be like that
i disagree
lim log ( 1 + u) / u as u->0 is not 1
err, wait it is
lim log ( 1 + x ) / x as x->0 is 1, so they are asymptotic to each other. very good, you used a different fact
but to prove this we use Lhopital, lim 1/(1+x) / (1) and as u->0 it becomes 1
right! nice
i took derivative of top and bottom
interesting argument , you just thought of that on the fly ?
oh and f(x) must be continuous , etc
I saw that somewhere couldn't recall it, but yeah the proof just bumped in my head
hey how'd you track katrina's ip?
hmmm, shivampatel.net
dont tell her though
but, when i compare log ( 1 + x) to x , i get a discrepanct
discrepancy *
Okay! I won't; Thanks
hmmm, maybe it should be ln ( 1 + x) , not base 10
ok perfect, now it works
yes now it is VERY close , it has to be ln , not log (base 10 )
yeah natural log
so ln ( 1 + u ) ~ u for u -> 0 , and you can substitute a continuous function there
you did a very nice argument
but its false that log ( 1 + u ) ~ u , for base 10
change it to log ( 1 + u ) ~ ln ( 10 ) u ?
oh i see my mistake , the derivative of log ( 1 + x ) is not 1/(1+x) if it is not base e
thanks you made it better
log ( 1+u) = ln ( 1 + u ) / ln 10 ~ u / ln 10
there, fixed it now
log ( 1 + u) ~ u/ln 10 as u-> 0+
excellent perl I presume you are university student
i have bachelor's ;)
wow awesome in math right?
*shrugs*
i love math, it keeps me alive ;)
i suffer from depression , it is my joy
i love math too I wanna do game programming
nice loving math is a good thing to do
i like world at war, very nice maps
call of duty
some maps look foggy and crappy, but some are pretty
yes Indeed game programming uses lot of math if you like games you can get started too
oh, hey do you like 3d graphing? i found a program romanlabs.com and a crack
I mean you will have upper hand you are good in maths all you need to learn is just the language 3d graphing yeah though I didn't do much of 3d math but yeah i like it thanks for the resource
hey is this a joke There are 10 types of people in the world, those who understand binary, those who don't, and those who can use induction.
10 = 2 in binary math
lol
looks like 3 to me
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