Question on topology. A function f :R->R is continuous if for each open set O in R the inverse image f^-1(O) is also an open set. I dont understand how this works, ok suppose I have a discontinuous function (removable discontinuity).
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so f^-1( (1,3) ) = (1,2) U (2,3)
i think you can prove this by asuming the contrary
man (lady) this is an excellent question!
hello
and the "answer" is that your "function", the one with a removable discontinuity, is not in fact a function on the interval in question because it is not defined at 2.
yes but the preimage is open , so i dont see a problem
no the function .... oh
a better and fuller explanation of this exact question is here: http://thetwomeatmeal.wordpress.com/2010/11/04/continuous-maps-and-homeomorphisms/
ok wait i will redefine it then
it really is a great question. if you redefine to be something else at 2, say 7, then you should see that it works.
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