Here again who prove this without using mathematical induction method 1+2^2+3^2+4^2+⋯⋯+n^2=(n(n+1)(2n+1))/6
without mathematical induction ? >_<
yes
how is it possible ? >_<
Use concept of limit.
Oh sorry idk, probably someone else could help.
To be clear, the ONLY way to prove this in general is with the Principle of Mathematical Induction. There is no proof of this identity using the concept of limits.
Yes JamesJ it has.
Show us.
\[(n+1)^3-1=\sum_{i=1}^{n}[(i+1)^3-i^3]=\sum_{i=1}^{n}[i^3+3i^2+3i+1-i^3]\] \[=\sum_{i=1}^{n}[3i^2+3i+1]=\sum_{i=1}^{n}3i^2+\sum_{i=1}^{n}3i+\sum_{i=1}^{n}1\] \[=3\sum_{i=1}^{n}i^2+3\frac{n(n+1)}{2}+n\] Solve for \[\sum_{i=1}^{n}i^2\]
Bhy is that first identity true: \[ (n+1)^3 - 1 = \sum ... \] and can you prove it without mathematical induction? Note also the proof of \( \sum_1^n i = n(n+1)/2 \) also required induction.
the first identity is a telescoping sum for the sum of i s=1+2+...n s=n+n-1+...+1 2s=(n+1)+...+(n+1)=n(n+1) s=n(n+1)/2
Ok, fair enough then.
I stand corrected on the necessity of induction.
But I still call bs on the notion of using limits. :-)
cant win em all :) my goal is at least 5% so that I can stay statistically relevant lol
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