Ask your own question, for FREE!
Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

How can the following two statements be logically equivalent? \[\forall x,y, (C(x)\wedge C(y)\wedge B(x,y))\implies \neg(MC(x) = MC(y))\]and\[\forall x,y, \neg C(x) \lor \neg C(y) \lor \neg B(x,y) \lor \neg (MC(x) = MC(y))\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I get it now, the second one is more considering all cases.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

either x is not a country, or y is not a country, or those are 2 countries but they don't border each other, or they are 2 countries bordering each other but they do not have the same map color.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

should have read that second one more closely >.<

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!