Verify the Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality f(x)=x g(x)=cos(pi*x) Inner product integral is inside Verify the Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality f(x)=x g(x)=cos(pi*x) Inner product integral is inside @Mathematics
\[<f,g>=\int\limits_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)g(x)dx\]
I have a feeling that it might be a step in which it has to do with odd and even functions that i have forgotten
so <f,g> =\[\frac{x}{\pi}\sin(\pi^2)+\frac{\cos(\pi x)}{\pi^2}\] evaluated at -pi to pi
however is there anyway to simplify it
the right hand side of your equation is equal to 0 as x*cos(pi*x) is an odd function, and the limits of the integral are from -pi to pi, hope it helps
how it asks for cauchy schwarz... and that is not whatsoever cauchy
\[||<f,g>||\le||f|| *||g||\]
i don't believe that the left side is negative but i'm looking to simplify it
the left hand side in that cauchy equation will become zero, upon putting those functions, and the rhs however will not be zero because of the modulous function, hence cauchy schwarz is verified
um how?
are just put the values fx =x gx= cospix in that equation
alright and what do you get after that
we get 0 on the left hand side of the equation
i meant what do you get aftr integration as how do i know whether your integration is correct
\[x\cos(\pi x)\] is an odd function
u see the right hand side has modulous function, that means that the graph of the fx and the gx has to remain above the x axis, and hence when are under the graph is qualitatively analised it will come out to be a positive value, which is in any case greater zero
got it outcast????
\[2\sin(\pi^2)+\frac{\cos(\pi^2))}{\pi^2}-\frac{\cos(-\pi^2)}{\pi^2}\]
as it's going to be on a test, i can't just say that this is what happens?
for any a \[\int\limits_{-a}^{a}x\cos(\pi x)dx=0\]
don't work so hard...use the fact that \[x\cos(\pi x)\] is odd
i need to show the work but i figured out what it was
\[\sin(\pi^2)+\sin(-\pi^2)=\sin(\pi^2)-\sin(\pi^2)=0\] however what about getting rid of the cosine function... isn't cosine even?
o wait \[\frac{\cos(\pi^2))}{\pi^2}-\cos(\pi^2)/\pi^2\]
i can't just say it's is odd i'd get marked down by my teacher he's very picky on showing work even if it's considered odd
been a while since i've used the odd and even function properties
see outcast , all u need to do do in this question is to verify whether the combination of the function is odd or even. and let me tell u , u need to work hard on that part first an then solve these problems which involve multiple concepts. so just grab any good calculus book, and solve problems until u develop some confidence in that particular area, thats my word of advice
I have taken calculus i'm in calculus 3 right now, and I hardly ever see problems such as these and when we do them, It usually is a full through work out. We were never given the rule about odd function from -a to a simply on the idea (i'm guessing) that you can figure it out with analysis instead reference to the function and integral
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