Question

need help on the attachment @Calculus1

Answer 1

you still havent got this one?

Answer 2

the answer you gave me was wrong

Answer 3

its either 1, 2, or 5

Answer 4

It's 5.

Answer 5

the reason it is number 5 is because:
the area between two curves is \[\int\limits_{a}^{b} f(x)-g(x) dx\] where f(x)>g(x).
since our integral is two added, we know one of them must be negative in actuality, so we have either -1/4 x & x+1 OR 1/4 x & -(x+1)
we have two options, but we are going to assume that because the 1/4 is first, that it corresponds to f(x) so our two lines are \[f(x)=-1/4 x\] and \[g(x)=-(x+1)\]
graphing those, we get what darkmirror posted. (thanks for that (: ), and we know our bounds are [0,4] so we look for that graph shaded from [0,4], which is option 5