I'm struggling with this problem. lim h->0 of (sin(t+h)-sin(t))/h)
looks like a first principles derivative problem
So (sin(t+0)-1)/0... But what do i do with the sin(t)??
This is pretty much the proof of f'(sinx) = cosx. You have to use: sin(t+h) = sintcosh+sinhcost
\[\lim_{h->0} \frac{sin(t+h)-sin(t)}{h}\] \[\lim_{h->0} \frac{(sin(h)cos(t)+sin(t)cos(h))-sin(t)}{h}\] \[\lim_{h->0} \frac{sin(h)cos(t)+sin(t)(cos(h)-1)}{h}\] \[\lim_{h->0}\left( cos(t)\frac{sin(h)}{h}+sin(t)\frac{(cos(h)-1)}{h} \right)\] \[cos(t)\frac{sin(0)}{0}+sin(t)\frac{(cos(0)-1)}{0}\]
\[\lim_{h->0}\frac{\sin(t+h) -\sin(t)}{h} \rightarrow \lim_{h->0}\frac{sintcosh+sinhcost - sint}{h}\] Now you factorize sint. And split it... \[\lim_{h->0} \frac{sint(\cosh-1)}{h} + \lim_{h->0}\frac{\sinh}{h} cost\] Now you can pull outside the sint over there and multiply by "h", sinh/h is 1, cost you bring it outside the limit, and you get "cost"
they tend to apply the "squuze" thrm to this to suggest that those limits go to what they need to
*squeeze
ALFIE, "sinh/h is 1". This is wrong. Sinh/h is not 1.....???wtf
lim for h -> 0 of sinh/h is 1.
Proof is...: sinx < x < tgx sinx < x < sinx/cosx divide by sinx.. 1 < x/sinx < 1/cosx cosx < sinx/x < 1. For the limit of x -> 0... according to the squeeze theorem... sinx/x = 1... Same stuff at your problem, just different name of variable.
Okay wow thanks. I have trouble seeing what to do after here: sint cosh+cost sinh-sint/h On my test tomorrow, I'm afraid I wouldn't have seen the need to split and factor. Tricky...
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