Prove the following, preferably using induction so i can learn it: \[\sum_{i=1}^{n}{2i-1}=n^2\]
induction, step 1, prove its true for some solid value
provwe ir's true for n = 1 :-D
yep; 2(1)-1 = 1 is true
next step, assume its true for an arbitrary value k
yeah! the book also uses the letter k!
then show it is true for k+1
hmm how do i do that part?
\[\sum_{1}^{k}2k-1=k^2\]
then add 2(k+1)-1 to both sides
@amistre64 be careful with your notation
how do i prove that the statement is true for n=k?
will try ;)
you assume that k is any value; and you know its good for k=1
so i just assume it's good for k, and then try to prove for n=k+1?
yep
\[k^2+2k+1=(k+1)^2\]
if you can see a spot that it is bad for, then it a given that this wont work
but there is no restriction to the domain as is other than >=1
\[\sum_{i=1}^{k+1}(2i-1)=\sum_{i=1}^{k}(2i-1)+2(k+1)-1=k^2+2(k+1)-1 =(k+1)^2\]
any questions agdgdgdwngo? ok what does rn and dn mean in computer programming?
I still don't get step 2
assume it is true for some k?
proof by induction is a more rigid version of the "and so on and so forth" of days gone by
step 1 show it is true for first k step 2 assume it is true for some k step 3 use step 2 to show it is true for k+1
oh alright I get it... and after step 2 you basically prove the statement is true for an infinite number of cases
yep, because if its true for any arbitrary k, and also true for the next one after it; that covers them all
this type of proof can be easily done by a computer program.
would this program require rn and dn?
btw, it's a good idea to write down exactly the statement you're trying to prove, as it will make it very clear in your argument what it is you're doing. In this problem, I would write the statement as following. Let P(n) be the statement that \[ \sum_{i=1}^n (2i - 1) = n^2 \] Now. A proof by induction of this or any other such statement has two steps, as has been mentioned. Formalizing this idea, the steps are: 1. Show that P(1) is true. (Or P(m) for some other integer m) 2. Show that P(k) => P(k+1) for all \( k \geq 1 \) (Or \( k \geq m \) ) If you show these two things, then by the Principle of Mathematical Induction P(n) is true for all \( n \geq 1 \) (or \( n \geq m \) ).
probably not :-P never heard of rn and dn.
:(
google doesn't work
Now in this case, step 1 is indeed easy. P(1) is the statement that \[ \sum_{i=1}^1 (2i-1) = 1 \] and this is true.
i know up means press u at first i thought it meant up
In step 2, we start with the hypothesis P(k). And now you need to show that P(k) implies P(k+1). The algebra for showing that has already been written down. =========
that was my algebra i can do a little algebra :)
hmm... I think I get it.
Prove \[\sum_{i=1}^{n}i=\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\]
hmm alright... so first we prove P(1) by showing that 1 = 1
and then we prove that if P(2),...,P(k) is true, then P(k+1) is also true
yes
so alright, let's prove P(2), which is basically saying that 1 + 2 = 0.5 * 6
The way to write step 2 formally would be something like this: Let us suppose P(k). I.e., \[ \sum_{i=1}^k (2i - 1) = k^2 \] Now we want to show this implies P(k+1). Now \[ \sum_{i=1}^{k+1} (2i - 1) = \sum_{i=1}^{k} (2i - 1) + \sum_{i=k+1}^{k+1} (2i - 1) \] \[ = k^2 + \sum_{i=k+1}^{k+1} (2i - 1) \ \ \hbox{, by hypothesis P(k) } \] \[ = k^2 + (2k + 1) \] \[ = (k+1)^2 \] Now as k was arbitrary, P(k) => P(k+1).
you only need to do it for one n=1 or n=2 but you don't need both and then assume it is true for k and now show it is true for k+! \[\sum_{i=1}^{k+1}i=\sum_{i=1}^{k}i+[(k+1)] \]
but what does \[\sum_{i=1}^{k}i =? \]
it is 1 + 2 + ... + k
which is what did we get to assume is true: this right: \[\sum_{i=1}^{k}i=\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\] ?
I'm confused.
let's just show that \[\sum_{i=1}^{k+1}i = \sum_{i=1}^{k}{i} + k + 1\]
or am I doing it backwards?
\[step \text{ 1 : } P(1)=1\] \[step: \text{2 : } P(k)=\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\] \[step: 3 : \text{ use step 2 \to show} \text{ (in this case:)}\] \[ P(k+1)=P(k)+k+1=\frac{(k+1)([k+1]+1)}{2}\]
I think we substitute that sum of i with \[\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\] and then we show
So, in notation. P(n) is the statement \[ \sum_{i=1}^n i = n(n+1)/2 \] Now suppose P(k) i.e., \[ \sum_{i=1}^k i = k(k+1)/2 \] Then \[ \sum_{i=1}^{k+1} i =\sum_{i=1}^k i + (k+1) \] \[ = k(k+1)/2 + (k+1), \ \ \ \hbox{ by P(k) } \] \[ = \frac{ k^2 + k + 2k + 2}{2} \] \[ = \frac{(k+1)(k+2)}{2} \] I.e., P(k) => P(k+1) for arbitrary k. Therefore, as 1. P(1) is true 2. P(k) => P(k+1) for arbitrary \( k \geq 1 \) it follows by the PMI that P(n) is true for all \( n \geq 1 \).
alright I understand proof by mathematical induction!
first we set k to 1 and then prove P(k)
No.
no? :(
Go back and read my statement of the method carefully.
Proof by mathematical induction: _________________________________________________________ 1. Show that P(1) is true. (Or P(m) for some other integer m) 2. Show that P(k) => P(k+1) for all k≥1 (Or k≥m )
Yes.
I get it now :-D
Like just about everything in mathematics, you'll know you really get it when you've written out quite a few problems.
alright I have another problem coming up
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