true or false... if f'(0)=0 and f"(x)>0, then f is decreasing on the interval (-inf,0)
Recall what the signum of a first derivative tells you about the function at \(x\): \[f'(x) < 0 \Leftrightarrow f\text{ is decreasing with respect to }x.\]\[f'(x) = 0 \Leftrightarrow f\text{ is constant with respect to }x.\]\[f'(x) > 0 \Leftrightarrow f\text{ is increasing with respect to }x.\] Additionally recall what the signum of a second derivative tells you about the function at \(x\): \[f''(x) < 0 \Leftrightarrow f\text{ is concave down.}\]\[f''(x) = 0 \Leftrightarrow f\text{ is neither concave up or concave down.}\]\[f''(x) > 0 \Leftrightarrow f\text{ is concave up.}\] Try to use this information to formulate your answer. Holler if you still heed help.
it is constant and some how concave down... that doesn't seem like that would work... my is x<0
so it is not decreasing which would make the statement false
Well, it's not constant everywhere...only at \(x=0\).
I wouldn't call it constant at 0
so since the x<0 it is true...
Of all missy ft's true/false questions, this is the most interesting, that's for sure.
and thanks to you jamesj i'm finally learning my calculus!!!
Fine, Zarkon... "Linearly approximated by a constant function at \(x=0\)".
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