sec(y)sin(π2−y)
secy*sin(2pi-y)=(1/cosy)*siny=siny/cosy=tany
\[\sec y \sin(pie/2-y)\]
this the question
secy=1/cosy sin(2pi-y)=sin(2pi)cosy-cos(2pi)siny.... sin(2pi)=0...we know that cos(2pi)=-1 we know that plug all the values you will get the result as tany
here secy*sin(pi/2-y) we can rewrite as...(1/cosy).cosy=1
sin(pi/2-y)=sin(pi/2)cosy-cos(pi/2)siny sin(pi/2)=1 cos(pi/2)=0 so...after plugging these values we will get.. (1/cosy)*cosy=cosy/cosy=1
how did u get cos for sin(pi/2) iam confused in that
Here, we know that secy=1/cosy so our equation will become sin(pi/2-y)/cosy.. Now, we have the formula for sin(a-b) as..sina*cosb-cosa*sinb applying that formula we will get our equation as... sin(pi/2-y)/cosy=(sin(pi/2)cosy-cos(pi/2)siny)/cosy.... we have the defined values of sin(pi/2)=1 cos(pi/2)=0.. so, after plugging that value we will get.. (cosy-0)/cosy=cosy/cosy=1
Let me know if u got it?
ya i got u thx
you r welcome:)
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