Let A be a 4x4 matrix such that A² - 3A + 2I = 0. Which two real numbers could possibly be eigenvalues of A?
The first think i taugth of is factoring into (A-1)(A-2) = 0 and saying 1 and 2 are the possible eigenvalues, but is that really it?
Yes, but not quite for that reason, because A - 2 doesn't make sense: a matrix minus a scalar
it should be (A-2I) right?
However 1 and 2 are the correct answers.
(A-I)(A-2I) = 0
More or less. Why does that equation imply 1 and 2 are eigenvalues?
Thats the part i was wondering :/ If A has two eigenvalues that it must be diagonlizable, so the diagonal matrix D will have the eigen values of it diagonal, so if we had (D-I)(D-2I) then D will have 0 entry in both the monomials (This is just a guess)
An eigenvalue \( \lambda \) is a solution of the equation \[ \det(A - \lambda I) = 0 \]
correct
Now if (A-I)(A-2I) = 0, then det[ (A-I)(A-2I) ] = 0. But the determinant of a product of square matrices is the product of the determinants. Thus det(A-I).det(A-2I) = 0 and it follows that one or both of these determinants is zero. And therefore ...
Perfecttt, thank you soo much, that makes sense :)
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