show teh integral of sin(lnx) by parts
\[\int\limits_{}^{}\sin (lnx) dx\]
so this is wat i hav so far u = ln x, du = dx/x...idk wat v adn dv shud be
I would set u = sin(ln(x)) and dv = dx
so wat wud du be and v equal to
Let me think on this for a second.
Okay. Let u = sin(lnx) and dv = dx. \[du = {\cos(\ln(x)) \over x} ~ and ~ v = x\]Therefore, \[\int\limits \sin(\ln x) dx = x \sin(\ln x) - \int\limits \cos(\ln x) dx\]Now we have to integrate the cos(ln x) integrate by parts. \[\int\limits \cos( \ln x) dx = x \cos(\ln x) + \int\limits \sin(\ln x) dx\]Therefore, we get \[\int\limits \sin(\ln x) dx = {x (\sin(\ln x) - \cos( \ln x)) \over 2} + C\]
\[\int\limits_{}^{}1 \cdot \sin(\ln(x)) dx=x \sin(\ln(x))-\int\limits_{}^{}x \cdot \frac{1}{x} \cos(\ln(x)) dx+C\] \[=x \sin(\ln(x))-\int\limits_{}^{}\cos(\ln(x)) dx+C\]
beat me to it
are both of ur asnwers the same but written differently
He went further than i did i stopped because he finished it before me
we started out the same way though we recognize that the antiderivative of 1 is x
why is it all divided by 2 in teh final answet
because he had \[2 \int\limits_{}^{}\sin(\ln(x)) dx\]
m confused where teh 2 comes from thou
Let me elaborate. After integrating the cosine term again, we get the following \[\int\limits \sin(\ln x) dx = x \sin( \ln x) - x \cos(\ln x) - \int\limits \sin (\ln x) dx\]Notice the like terms on both sides of the equal sign.
OH U BROUGHT IT TO TEH OTEHR SIDE
to get 2 integral of sen(ln x)
\[\int\limits\limits \sin(\ln x) dx = x \sin(\ln x) - \int\limits\limits \cos(\ln x) dx +C\] \[= x \sin(\ln x) -[x \cos(\ln x) + \int\limits \sin(\ln x) dx] +C\] \[= x \sin(\ln x) -x \cos(\ln x) - \int\limits \sin(\ln x) dx +C\] so we have so far: \[\int\limits\limits \sin(\ln x) dx = x \sin(\ln x) -x \cos(\ln x) - \int\limits \sin(\ln x) dx +C\]
We get \[2 \int\limits \sin (\ln x) dx = x \sin(\ln x) - x \cos(\ln x)\] Divide by 2 and whola!
yep yep
Team work baby!
AWESOME job u both expalin super WELL!! Sorry im a very visual learner so wen ppl skip steps liek my teachers i get really confused
Glad we could be of help. The trick to trigonometric functions is to typically integrate or derive twice. That way we are able to move it to the other side of the equals sign and eliminate it. On the other hand, natural log (ln) and exponential (e^x) functions are hard to get rid of and usually stick around. Good luck!
THANKS for the tip.....=)
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