A survey indicated that 72% of blah if given a choice would prefer to start their own business. A random sample of 600 people is obtained. What is the probability that no more than 70% would prefer to start their own business?
Anyone? :(
Hi there
I can help you with this if you like
Actually I think I have this one, I found something in my book.
Thanks though
Just curious, how did you solve it?
Well I'm in the process of solving it... turning .70 into a z-score by subtracting mean and dividing by standard deviation.
I think that doesn't work in this case because you don't know the standard deviation of the population
..true.
This can be modelled exactly using the binomial distribution, which if you have a fancy calculator you can compute
Do you know the binomial distribution?
The... uhh... What is that again?
binomial distribution
I don't know that.
do you know the answers? i want to make sure my answer is right before i go on a wild goose chase teaching you
I can look it up in the back of the book.
is it 0.147989?
Says here P(phat < .7) = .1379
hmm, not sure how they got that
Oh well, might just skip this one.
ok, BANG! I totally figured out exactly what the book did, and I have an answer that's superior to theirs.
Superior to the math book? You are a wizard aren't you?
No, just a regular wizard (e.g. broomsticks)
Haha, very well.
Anyway so here's the deal. The *exact* way of computing the answer to that question is using something called the Binomial Distribution. The Binomial Distribution is another distribution, sort of like the normal distribution. The normal distribution takes "average" and "standard deviation" as parameters, but the binomial distribution is different. It takes as parameters "n" -- the number of times you try an experiment, and p -- the probability that experiment "succeeds". Then the distribution tells you what the probability is that any particular number of successes will occur. So the *exact* answer to your question is the CDF of the binomial distribution(n=600, p=0.72) evaluated at 600*0.70. This is 0.147989. The problem is the Binomial Distribution is a huge pain in the retriceto calculate for large values of n. I only know what it is because I used a program that can calculate it. Many people, and stodgy old textbooks, use the Normal Distribution as an *approximation* to the binomial distribution. You can approximate the Binomial using average = np, std dev = sqrt(n * p * (1-p)). When you use this approximation, and evaluate the CDF of the normal distribution with those parameters at 600*0.70, you get the book answer. So they're assuming you're going to use the normal approximation. But 0.148 is a better, more exact answer.
Haha, well very good. I'm flattered that you'd go to that much trouble to help me with a math problem :)
It's OK, I'm really here to learn math. Just exploiting hapless students like yourself to give me problems like this that make me think.
Well however you look at it, you've really helped, thanks a lot.
no problem. any other questions?
Uhh, yeah, small one, what's the difference between x and xbar? I'm calculating a z score and it says (x-mu)/stdev, but I'm not really sure what plain x is, I have xbar.
I'm not totally sure, it seems to depend on context sometimes, but I think x is a particular sample and x-bar is a sample average
Hmm, so should I just use the value I have for xbar?
probably
Alrighty. Okay I've been at this for several hours, I'm gonna take a break for a bit, but I'll be back with more questions I'm sure.
np
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