For the linear transformation T, determine if it is invertible and justify your answer T: P3(R) -> R^3 by T(p(x)) = (p(0), p(1), p(2))
So this function will be invertible if it is one-to-one. Is it one-to-one?
Not quite sure. That was the whole question, no hints what so ever
Yes, think about it. Write down an arbitrary member of P3, call it p(x) look at T(p(x)) and ask yourself if there is another poly q(x) such that T(q(x)) = T(p(x))
What is P3(R) in this case?
Third order polynomials over the real numbers.
Another approach is to ask yourself what is the dim of P3(R) and R^3.
Indeed that would work too, as T is a vector space homomorphism.
Yes. In fact, it's not hard to convince yourself that T must be onto and hence by the first isomorphism theorem \[ P_3 / \ker(T) \simeq \mathbb{R}^3 \] and therefore ker(T) is non-zero. Hence T is not 1:1 and T cannot be invertible.
If that's a bit complex, then do this. Make the association between P3 and R^4 by a natural isomorphism which associates this basis of P3 {1,x,x^2,x^3} with this basis of R^4 {(1,0,0,0), (0,1,0,0), (0,0,1,0), (0,0,0,1) } Then you can think of T as a linear map from R^4 to R^3 T(a,b,c,d) = (a, a+b+c+d, a+2b+4c+8d) Now use regular matrix considerations to determine whether or not the matrix representation of T is invertible.
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