Question

0! = 0

True
False

Okay I definitely find this true. But I just wanted to double check and make sure it's not a trick question.

Answer 1

0! = 1

Answer 2

false

Answer 3

False

Answer 4

Urggggg I thought I was right for once /: Blaaah. Oh well, thanks for correcting me though! (=

Answer 5

0 factorial is 1 .. isn't it?

Answer 6

can anyone prove that?

Answer 7

It has to be \(1\) to avoid things like\[\frac{3!}{(3-3)!}\]from being undefined.

Answer 8

postulate... lol

Answer 9

why is 1 ?

Answer 10

i think because every number on exponent 0 is 1

Answer 11

That's a totally different thing, though.

Answer 12

proof
nCr = n! /n-r! r!
if n = r - similar to what across wrote

Answer 13

Plus, no one has set on what the value of \(0^0\) should be.\[\]

Answer 14

another way to look at it is you can only have one way of arranging nothing!

Answer 15

I don't think there's a proof for it; it's a stated in the definition in the rule to account for what across said.

Answer 16

i see what you mean its really taken to be true in order to make the factorial theory consistent