Need help with infinite sum of a power series
\[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}(n+1)(1-p)^{n}\] where 0<p<1
Hmm.... Let's try a trick here. \[(n+1)(1-p)^n = - \frac{d}{dp} (1-p)^{n+1}\] So \[ \sum_{n=0}^\infty (n+1)(1-p)^n = -\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{d}{dp}(1-p)^{n+1}= -\frac{d}{dp}(1-p)\sum_{n=0}^\infty (1-p)^n\] since 0 < p < 1, 1-p < 1, so \[ \sum_{n=0}^\infty (1-p)^n = \frac{1}{1-(1-p)} = \frac{1}{p}\] so finally, our sum becomes \[-\frac{d}{dp}(1-p)\frac{1}{p} = \frac{d}{dp}1-\frac{1}{p} = \frac{1}{p^2}\]
Is there a name for that trick? it's a new one on me.
I'm not sure, actually. Maybe. I suppose it would be a cousin of the "differentiation under the integral sign" technique, or "integration by parametric differentiation" if you want big words. Are you familiar with that?
I've heard of differentiation under the integral sign but never learned it :/
I think I can extrapolate the idea though.
The integral form is \[ \frac{d\ }{dt} \int_a^b f(x,t) \ dx = \int_a^b \frac{\partial f}{\partial t}(x,t) \ dx \] Both with the series form and the integral form, you need to be careful changing the order the differentiation and summation; there are things that can go spectacularly wrong if the function in the integration or the series in the summation don't meet some standards of 'well-behaved'.
thanks everyone...I think i get it now
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