Question

Why is the exponent 0 of any number equal to 1?

Answer 1

by definition

Answer 2

let's say we have a^2/a^2= a^(2-2)
a^0=a^2/a^2
a^0=1

Answer 3

it is the definition that will extend the laws of exponents to zero and negative numbers. so for example
\[10^3=1000, 10^2=100, 10^2=10\] so it makes sense to say
\[10^0=1\] to complete the pattern of dividing by ten

Answer 4

guys started to plot graph they begain from -infinity to infinity but were stuck at 0 thy abserved the limits and it turned out to be one

Answer 5

Actually it's not true for
0^0
that form is indeterminate.

Answer 6

what turingtest said

Answer 7

although theres is apparently still some "controversy" about
\[0^0\]

Answer 8

True, it's a bit debated.

Answer 9

Thank you everyone.