Question

how i graph this equation :

Answer 1

for T =30 c - 400c

Answer 2

this about statistical physics

Answer 3

ok. This equation you've posted doesn't make sense. Is there an integral sign missing?

Answer 4

p=1 atm and sum of particle is 10^22

Answer 5

what is missing?i think no integral missing

Answer 6

there is a dv in the equation.

Answer 7

\[ f(v) = \ ... v^2 \ dv \]

Answer 8

oh,i am sorry...you are right...we have f(v)dv=....

Answer 9

So you want to graph the function f(v)?

Answer 10

yes, i will graph for function of energy toward temperature of room between 30-400 c

Answer 11

Use wolfram alpha. This equation is
\[ f(v) = AB^{-kv^2} v^2 \] some constants A, B and k.

For example:
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=f%28v%29+%3D+2*3%5E%28-4v%5E2%29v%5E2+

Answer 12

james,may i ask about relationship between standar deviation(\[\sigma\]),variance and this equation?

Answer 13

variance = stdev^2

Answer 14

i.e., in standard notation, variance = \( \sigma^2 \).

Answer 15

how i find variance from this equation?

Answer 16

I don't know this expression and I can't help you with that, sorry.

Answer 17

ok,
from this equation can we find laplace constanta?

Answer 18

i dont understand how to use wolfram

Answer 19

james,i have instruction from my friend but i doubt about this,
If f(x) is a 'probability density function;, pdf for short, then integral f(x)dx from 0 to infinity is one.
To obtain the mean value of x, we have to integrate x.f(x)dx from zero to infinity. Call this integral I(1) ...this is also called 'first moment' in stat.
If you integrate x.x f(x)dx ,that is x squared .f(x) we get second moment. Call this integral I(2).
Now you calculate I(2) - I (1)I(1) to get variance....


In your equation, v is the same as x....V represents the velocity of a particle; in this case, velocity of a gas atom [for monatomic gases] or a gas molecule like hydrogen molecule.
By doing the two integrations with f(v)dv as given above, you get the mean velocity I(1) first. Then get variance....

Note that mv.v/2kt is the kinetic energy of the particle for one degree of freedom . The particle has three degrees of freedom and total kinetic energy is three times this value.
This is called "partitioning of energy". If you do for one degree of freedom, that is sufficient.....

Answer 20

Right. If this function f is a pdf, and we define
\[ E[g(x)] = \int_{[0,\infty)} g(x) f(x) \ dx \]
then the mean is E[x] and the variance is
\[ \sigma^2 = E[(x-E[x])^2] \]