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limit x/1-cosx x-->0
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use L'Hopital's Rule on x/(1-cos(x))
L'Hopital's Rule cant work here.. it will male it1/0 form...
so what will the answer be?
m trying , lets see
lim x/2sin^2(x) = (x^2/4)/(2x sin^2(x/2) = lim 1/(2x) =infinite x-->0 x-->0 i think so...but not 100% sure...
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L'Hopital works by not working - after all the answer is +infinite or -infinite depending on whether you come from 0+ or 0- ... take a look at the graph of x/(1-cos(x)) at 0 for example by typing lim_(x->0) x/(1-cos(x)) into WolframAlpha at www.wolframalpha.com: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=lim_%28x-%3E0%29+x%2F%281-cos%28x%29%29
good job
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