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Mathematics 18 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Show that there exists a unique bijection from the set of positive real numbers with values in the set that verifies f'(x)=g(x), where g(x) is the functional inverse of f(x).

OpenStudy (anonymous):

f'(x)=g(x), where g(x) is the functional inverse of f(x). The only function that suits the above is the function of y=x. As both y=x is the inverse and non-inverse. so looking at the line y=x |dw:1329114672903:dw| You can conclude that for every value of x there is a unique value of y, gving one-to-one correspondence, that is necessary for a bijection function

OpenStudy (anonymous):

What? Did you miss f'(x)? The derivative of f(x)?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

omgomgomg. yesh.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

The proof is fugly, lol. http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Forum/viewtopic.php?f=70&t=37916 There it is if you're interested.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

thanks!

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