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∀x,n(x^n∉ℝ) ⇔ x≤0,n∈ℝ,n∉ℚ I asked this question already, but this is, I think, a more correct mathematical statement?
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this is finite math -.-
right?
This is innaccurate. I should say ∀x,n(x^n∉ℝ) <- x<0,n∈ℝ,n∉ℚ Finite math?
I learned this notation in logic theory.
okies i failed that class
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sorries cant help you there either
:c it's k
:P
\[\forall x,n(x <0,n \in \mathbb{R}, n \notin \mathbb{Q} \rightarrow x^{n} \notin \mathbb{R} )\] is that it? what is it you want to know?
well, basically x^n, where x<0, and n is a transcendental, x^n MUST be in the complex plane, right? how can we prove this?
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Proof by contrapositive assume \[x \in \mathbb{R} \rightarrow x \ge 0 \cup n \notin \mathbb{R} \cup n \in \mathbb{Q}\]
Oh ok. Thanks.
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