k-17<-(17-k)
\[\le\]
k-17<-(17-k) k-17 < -17 +k k-17 < k-17 which is the same thing?????
its actually \[k-17\le-(17-k)\]
oh ok my bad ahha
what do i do now?
Well, since you know that both sides are exactly the same, and k-17 = k-17 (this is that "or equal to" part of the inequality), we can use any value of k for this to be true. So, we would have infinitely many solutions of k for it. (k is any value for it to be true)
No. in the end u will get k=k. It does not matter if there are infinite solutions of k. What is the point of the question if it tells u that k=k. damn i dunno why am i so pissed at just this LOL.
so would it be no solution?
@tiaph hmm.. well, inequalities were never my strong point, but i assume when it wants you to find a value for k to be, and k can be any value to be true, the only thing you could say is that any value of k works. D:
...or i guess you could say "this question is dumb, why would you ask me if they're exactly the same, hw assignment?!"
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