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Mathematics 11 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Let S1 and S2 be disjoint countably infinite sets. Show that S1 U S2 is countable. Suppose that S1; S2; S3 .... are disjoint countably in finite sets. Show that U∞ & n=1 Sn is countable. What if the sets above are not disjoint or infinite, are the conclusions still valid?

OpenStudy (kinggeorge):

Well, you would need to show that there is a bijective function between \[s_1 \cup s_2 \longrightarrow \mathbb{N}\]

OpenStudy (kinggeorge):

Since \(S_1, S_2\) are countably infinite, there exists a bijection to the natural numbers with each of them. Thus, we can impose some sort of order on both sets such that there is a first element, second element, third element, and so on. Then, since they are disjoint, \(S_1 \cup S_2\) contains no elements that are in both \(S_1\) and \(S_2\). Thus, we can impose a similar order on \(S_1 \cup S_2\). In particular, let the first element be the first element of \(S_1\), the second element be the first element in \(S_2\), the third be the second element of \(S_1\), and so on. In general, the \(n\)-th element of \(S_1 \cup S_2\) will be the \({n+1} \over 2\)-th element of \(S_1\) if \(n\) is odd, and the \(n \over 2\)-th element of \(S_2\) if \(n\) is even.

OpenStudy (kinggeorge):

You can prove your second question by induction (it should be obvious, but I'll give a hint if you don't know), and the conclusions are still valid if the sets are not disjoint or infinite, but it's slightly harder to show.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

thanks a tonne

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