Show that ∫_{0,∞}(dx/(1+x^n))=π/(nsin(π/n)) for ∀n∈ℝ. Repost, but I have no idea what to do, and the last one drowned.
This?\[\int\limits \limits_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{1+x^{n}}dx = \frac{\pi}{n \sin\frac{\pi}{n}}\]
Yep. This question was asked in context of the residue theorem http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_theorem. Analysis and all that.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Residue_theorem The link, since the previous one apparently doesn't work. Not like it's too hard to Google it, or anything.
OK - I'll read up on the residue theorem and come back once I've understood it. Looks interesting.
Thanks, asna!
Is \(x\) a real variable?
I don't believe I'm told if it is, but in context it's a safe assumption.
is it? the wiki link suggest to me otherwise
Point taken.
I believe it's a real variable. Anyways, the relation above doesn't hold for \(n=1\) since \[\int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{1+x}=\ln(1+x)|_0^{\infty} \to \infty.\]
I'll be honest--I can't make heads or tails of the residue theorem.
and I'm running out of tricks.... I think this is beyond me
I'm not mastering the residue theorem, so I will first try to use it on the special case with \(n=2\), since we already know that the integral would be \(\frac{\pi}{2}\). \[\int_0^{\infty} \frac{1}{1+x^2}=\frac{1}{2}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{dx}{1+x^2}=\frac{1}{2}\text{Re}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{1+z^2}dz.\] Now I will apply the theorem to evaluate \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{1}{1+z^2}dz\).
I found a you tube video where the person explains almost exactly this integral using the residue theorem: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XRFn0ioBPXI
Whoa, nice find, asna. And clever algebra, math.
@badreferences: I tried to follow the reasoning in the video - it sort of makes sense but I will need to review some of his earlier videos in order to understand this completely. That will take me some time - so don't hold your breath! :) In the meantime, I'll leave you with the expert Mr.Math.
I still don't see what you're trying to get at, though, Math. What can we determine by examining this special case? Looks like a fairly straightforward arctan.
Yeah I know. I just wanted to do it using the residue theorem to see how it works with this simple case (that we already know its value). That's why I changed it to complex variable integral.
This is a related video to the one that naseer posted above, where the man evaluated the integral of 1/(1+x^4) using the residue theorem. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=MRLa5bk3_R4&feature=related
I think it would help us understand the general case.
Let's see if I can make myself understand this.
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