Is this correct?
\[\int\limits_{}^{}da=\int\limits_{}^{}x db\] can you convert this into: \[\int\limits_{}^{}(da/db) db=\int\limits_{}^{}x db\] so x= da/db?
yes you can but google it once im not sure
Yes, I thought it might, as it's basically reversing one of the processes in integration by substitution. Anyone else have an idea?
im pretty sure u can
I think it is okay in some situations, but since I don't know what these variables represent, I'm not sure There are certainly criteria these functions have to meet in order fort this to be valid. As to what those criteria are, you may need to ask a real expert. It seems to me like you're trying to use a special case of the Leibniz integral rule, which I know only works in limited situations Here's the wiki on that for perspective http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leibniz_integral_rule
a=(Least) action b=time
lagrangian?
\[(LeastAction)=\int\limits_{}^{} (Lagrangian)dt\] \[\int\limits_{}^{} d(LeastAction)=\int\limits_{}^{} (Lagrangian)dt\] \[\int\limits_{}^{} (d(LeastAction)/dt) dt=\int\limits_{}^{} (Lagrangian)dt\]
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