For any real numbers x and y, if x^4 - y^4 = 0 then x=y or x=-y.
true.
It seems obvious, since proof by assume will give us an expected result, however, we need to prove that this is only true for (x,y)∈ℝ. So, proof by contrapositive?
x^4 - y^4 = 0 => (x^2+y^2)(x^2-y^2) = 0 => x^2 = -y^2 OR (x+y)(x-y) = 0 Hmmmm....first root is imaginary stuff? Second part is clear. x = -y OR x = y.
I think the question is asking how do we prove that ∀((x,y)∈ℝ)|x^4-y^4=0↔{x=y}∪{x=-y}
Oh....yeah. if x and y are real, yes. Clearly.
So the solutions by GT and and mad are partial solutions that would probably pass in a calculus class, but not in analytics.
it is a set of questions preceded with "Prove these propositions:"
this is an intro to proofs class.
Probabilistic proof by assume contra. Solve for n and r such that substituting nx and ry in for x and y for {x,y}≠1?
If the "then" statement is true, there cannot be non-unit values for scalar transforms of x and y such that n and r are real values.
this one i am definitely not following.
Alright, if we know the proposition given, THEN the x=y or x=-y. I'm not sure if that's a universal THEN, but if it is, we need to prove that there are no values x≠y or x≠-y such that this is also true.
okay. but if we do it the way GT did it doesn't come out to a concrete result.
If x^4 - y^4 = 0 then (x^2+y^2) (x^2-y^2) = 0. So that factors to (x^2+y^2) (x+y) (x-y) =0. Therefore, x^2=y^2 and x=y. (x+y) = 0 and (x-y)=0 so x=-y and x=y.
how do you get from (x^2+y^2) (x+y) (x-y) =0 to x^2=y^2 ? aren't you supposed to be doing induction in class?
i am just using what i know thus far. induction is still fairly new to me so i wouldn't know how to properly use it in this proof.
ok I got it...
\[x^4-y^4=0\iff x=\pm y\]first step: check for x=1
Let x = 1 such that 1^4 - y^4 = 0. 1-y^4 = 0. -y^4=-1. ....
try difference of squares...
aright so then (1 - y^2) (1+y^2) = 0 so 1=y -1=y
much better, though note that you could have done difference of squares twice\[(1-y^4)=(1+y^2)(1-y^2)=(1+y^2)(1+y)(1-y)=0\]since 1+y^2>0 we only have to solve the last two sets of parentheses for 0\[y=\pm1=\pm x\]that is a more thorough way to do it ;)
so now we just assume that this is true for some random n\[n^4-y^4=0\]from here out out this statement is gospel the final step is to show that this implies that it is true for n+1 this can be done by plugging in n+1 for x, then using difference of squares and solving the resulting factored equation if you do that correctly you will be able to show that y=n+1, which means the statement is true for all n why don't you try that for a bit?
sorry, the statement is\[n^4-y^4=0\iff y=\pm n\]
you cant stop after showing y = +,- 1 = +, - x?
no because that is just for one particular x (x=1) we want to show it for all x if that first statement was enough to prove it for all x I could prove that 1+x=2 for all x by just doing the first step! clearly that is not enough...
what is needed is to 1)show this statement is true for some particular value 2)assume that it is true for some random value n (which we have already shown) 3) (this is the most important part) show that those two things /necessarily imply/ that this is true for n+1 that is sufficient to prove the statement
can you help with the result? i'm stuck.
checking x=n+1 we have\[((n+1)^4-y^4)=((n+1)^2+y^2)((n+1)^2-y^2)\]\[=((n+1)^2+y^2)((n+1)+y)((n+1)-y)=0\]again we have that the last two sets of parentheses are the only ones that could possibly be zero, so we have\[n+1-y=0\to y=(n+1)=x\]\[n+1+y=0\to y=-(n+1)=-x\]which I think proves our statement for at least all positive n I suppose we could have made x=0 (that is obviously true as well)
hm... I'm not sure I see how to prove it for negative numbers, which seems to be required in the problem sorry, I'll have to think about that part
this has to be done by induction?
I was asking you if you were doing induction in class no, nothing has to be done that way, it's just a method it's probably the most common one for proving a statement like that about all numbers though
could this be done just as a simple proof
I'm not sure I know what that means... a proof requires what it requires ok here's a real cut-corner 'proof': you are trying to show that \[x^4-y^4=0\iff y=\pm x\] for all x and y if you think that just saying\[x^4-y^4=(x^2+y^2)(x+y)(x-y)=0\]the square of any number besides zero is positive, so x^2+y^2>0 therefor by the zero factor property either\[x+y=0\to x=-y\]or\[x-y=0\to x=y\]
scratch the 'if you think that' part*
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