Prove that \[4\sin(x+{1\over6}\pi)\sin(x-{1\over6}\pi)=3-4\cos^2x\]
sin(a+b) = sina*cosb + sinb*cosa sin(a-b) = sina*cosb - sinb*cosa a = x b = pi/6 sin b = 1/2 cos b = sqrt3/2
Yes, I know that. But how do I work with the 4sin?
4sin(x+1/6π)sin(x−1/6π) = -2{ cos[(x+1/6π)+(x-1/6π)] - cos[(x+1/6π)-(x-1/6π)] } = 2cos 1/3π -2 cos 2x = 1 - 2[ 2(cosx)^2 -1] = 1- 4(cosx)^2 +2 = 3-4(cosx)^2
\[\rightarrow 4(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\sin x+\frac{1}{2} \cos x)(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\sin x-\frac{1}{2} \cos x)\] \[=4(\frac{3}{4}\sin^{2} x - \frac{1}{4}\cos^{2} x)\] \[=3 \sin^{2} x - \cos^{2} x\]
first step : product to sum formula second step: double angle formula
@Callisto How? I don't understand...
sinAsinB = -1/2 [cos(A+B)-cos(A-B) ] put A= x+1/6π and B = x-1/6π then you'll get 2cos 1/3π -2 cos 2x
then use double angle formula, cos2x = 2(cosx)^2 -1 to reduce 2cos 1/3π -2 cos 2x ps : 2cos 1/3π = 2 (0.5) =1 -2 cos 2x = -2[2(cosx)^2 -1] = -4(cosx)^2 +2 combine the two, which gives 1-4(cosx)^2 +2 that is 3-4(cosx)^2
I've never learned the product formula...? Is there another way to do it without the product formula?
hmm dumbcow has shown you lol only left one step for you that is 3(sinx)^2 - (cosx)^2 = 3 [ 1-(cosx)^2 ] - (cosx)^2 = 3 - 4 (cosx)^2
how does 3(sinx)^2 become 3[ 1- (cosx)^2]?
\[\sin^2x+\cos^2x=1\] so \[\sin^2x=1-\cos^2x\]
Oh Ok. Thanks.
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