need help with this integral
\[\int\limits_{0}^{1}lnxdx \]
pretty sure i need to us l'hopitals rule?just not sure
parts
yep. btw, I think l'hopitals rule is for limits isn't it?
I'm with those above me. Parts is the way to go.
there will be a limit here...it is an improper integral
I thought there was a limit?Ugh im getting lost
ah..
so how would i use the limit in this?
For parts, let \(u=\ln(x)\) and \(dv=dx\)
\[\int\limits_{0}^{1}\ln(x)dx=\lim_{t\to 0^{+}}\int\limits_{t}^{1}\ln(x)dx\]
yes, notice your lower limit is zero. lnx is not defined there so you'll have to let your lower limit = a and let a approach 0
So I can not just put 0 in at some point?Im not sure why i would use parts here..
if i were you i would memorize this one
math teachers love putting it on test and it would save you a lot of time to just remember that \[\int\ln(x)dx=x\ln(x)-x\]
check is easy, take the derivative and see that it works
okay so if i get xln(x)-x do I just evaluate from 0 to 1? Sorry never done one like this yet... So wouldnt you get 0-1?=-1?
Does that make sense?or did i skip a step
well you do get -1 but not so fast
because \[\ln(0)\] is undefined so you have to take \[\lim_{t\to 0^+}t\ln(t)\]
for this you can use l'hopital as the original post suggests
form is \[0\times -\infty\]
Im just getting thrown off because of the 1 also...I understand we need to use the limit because of the 0 but just not sure about how to us the 1
the 1 is straight forward \[1\times \ln(1)-1=1\times 0-1=-1\] the second part is the one that requires work, taking the limit
standard trick for \[\lim_{t\to 0^+}t\ln(t)\] is to rewrite as \[\lim_{t\to 0}\frac{\ln(t)}{\frac{1}{t}}\] and use l\hopital
im looking up l'hopitals rule again right now to make sure i remember it right...but i think id get it
so i take the derivatve of ln(t) and the one of 1/t? and that is l'hopitals rule right?
take the derivative separately top and bottom, simplify using algebra and replace t by 0, you will get limit is 0 in one step
right
oh that works. Thanks a lot!
yw
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