Let R^3 have the Euclidean inner product. Find an orthonormal basis for the subspace spanned by (0,1,2) (-1,0,1) (-1,1,3). Show the steps obviously. Thanks!
wouldnt that ne the nulspace of that span?
we need to turn this into an orthogonal set first I believe, which requires me looking at my notes
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=rref%7B%280%2C1%2C2%29+%2C%28-1%2C0%2C1%29%2C+%28-1%2C1%2C3%29%7D if so i rref the matrix to get; (1,-2,1)
we gotta use the Gram-Schmidt process I believe
Gram Smidt is for weiners lol
I know, that's why I always forget it and have to look at my notes
the set given is not linearly independant, if that helps
\[\vec u_1=\vec v_1=<0,1,2>\]\[\vec u_2=\vec v_2-{<\vec v_2,\vec u_1>\over||\vec u_1||^2}\vec u_1\]oh this is gonna take forever
Use words instead then :) I know GS method, so it's fine.
well if you continue along with GS you get an orthogonal basis you want an \(orthonormal\) basis, so just divide each resultant vector by its norm at the end.
Hmm, so it's that easy is it.. Thought it would be more work.
\[\vec u_1=\vec v_1\]\[\vec u_2=\vec v_2-{<\vec v_2,\vec u_1>\over||\vec u_1||^2}\vec u_1\]\[\vec u_2=\vec v_3-{<\vec v_3,\vec u_1>\over||\vec u_1||^2}\vec u_1-{<\vec v_3,\vec u_2>\over||\vec u_2||^2}\vec u_2\]not that's all according to my notes
(0,1,2) (-1,1,3) (0,1,2) (-1,0,1) (-1,0,1) (-1,1,3) ------------------------- 0+0+2 1+0+3 0+1+6 none of the vectors in the set ore orthogonal to each other ... is that a problem?
Are there any sweeter alternatives then GS to convert the set to a orthogonal base?
I really wish there were, I always forget the GS formula if you find one let me know
@amistre64 yes it is a problem, that's why we use the GS process first to make it an orthogonal set
I see, well, crackin on the GS then, thanks for the help. Do you know any page where all the spaces are geometrically explained, so it's easier to imagine how they all relate to each others?
I almost always refer people here for linear algebra http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/LinAlg/OrthonormalBasis.aspx check out the whole site, it's pretty cool
http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/LinAlg/OrthonormalBasis.aspx example 2 says: Solution - You should verify that the set of vectors above is in fact a basis for R^3
echo echo... lol
your set is NOT a basis for R^3
oh I didn't check, good eye amistre
Weird, since the book has nothing to say about that when I check the answer. Just shows the 2 answer-vectors.
hmf... well now I have no idea what to do if it doesn't span \(\mathbb R^3\) how can we make it do so?
then example 2 is finding an orthoGONAL basis and not really an orthoNORMAL basis for othro vectors of orthodontists of orthopedic institutions of orthogonality on the book of orthometrical identites of othro ortho orthos
lol yeah that's how I read it too
:)
@Nightie are you \(sure\) those are the three vectors you are given? not typos? 'cuz if those are the vectors, they don't form a basis for \(\mathbb R^3\), so I got no idea what to do maybe amistre does
"First, note that this is almost the same problem as the previous one except this time we’re looking for an orthonormal basis instead of an orthogonal basis. There are two ways to approach this. The first is often the easiest way and that is to acknowledge that we’ve got a orthogonal basis and we can turn that into an orthonormal basis simply by dividing by the norms of each of the vectors. " But we dont have an orthoG basis to work with
yeah, that's why I suggested GS to get an othogonal basis, but how do we get around the fact that this is not a basis for R^3 ?
Well in example 2 he doesnt convert them to a orthonormal basis, he keeps them as orthogonal, afaik. And yes, I've allready checked the vectors 4 times, just in case...
example 2 he makes the set orthogonal example 3 he makes it orthonormal
this website is acting wierd lately; keeps booting me out
me too at times...
you say your answer book gives 2 vectors?
Indeed
then i believe that are omiting the last vector since its not linearly independant; and using the first 2 in some process
Thought: Does a subspace actually have to be a base? Maybe that's in a defintion somewhere.. But yeah, does it?
what do you mean "be a base"? a set of vectors can form a base for a susbspace I think your terminology is a bit confused
a subspace of R^3 that spans R^3 has to have 3 linearly independant vectors
I think so as well. Thanks amistre
otherwise its a subspace in R^2 i think
right, the vectors have to be linearly independent to form a basis for anything
ah, find an orthoN for the subspace spanned by .... yeah, so drop that last vector and try your luck
teh subspace is not being defined as R^3
I agree, there seems no better option
Sneaky bastards, will see if that works out.
good luck!
the only caveat i see there is in that the first 2 vectors still aint orthoG
do you have to make them orthoG? by finding 2 vectors in the plane that are orthoG?
but you can make them orthoG with GS but that makes no sense because they aren't a basis because they have 3 components oh jeez, this makes no sense
lol, they are still a basis; they just dont exists as the basis for the xy plane; its tilted
|dw:1333376644461:dw|
so then the z-components should be linearly dependent ?
and the other two no? I'm confusiddddd
this row reduces to: 1 0 -1 0 1 2 0 0 0 so its a plane with a normal vector of (1,-2,1) if i see it right
and you would just do GS on... what now?
x 1 y = z -2 ; and the point (0,0,0) z 1 x-2y+z = 0
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=z+%3D+2y-x this is the subspace we are looking at
so I was right that z is linearly dependent on x and/or y but I still have no idea what to do from here to get an otho-anything basis
well, if all that is needed is to orthoG vectors from the plane; we have a normal and 2 other vectors to choose from; id say we could cross the normal and another vector to produce the orthoG (binormal) that sits in the plane to play with
ok, that's a good idea :) then orthoN just comes from dividing each vector by it's norm ?
thats my thought; but then im just taking a blind stab at it :)
yeah, I doubt this is how they want the problem solved, but since the vectors given do not span R^3 I think your way should work
any advice from nightie would be good; since they are actually invloved in the subject material to guide this idea into the gutter or not lol
I'm just trying to pass the test... Scratching surfaces of the real material, my terminology even sucks.. :P So you're probably better off guiding this, by far :)
what are the answers so that we know where to go from here?
im assuming youve got 2 answer vectors
Fock, annoying equation system, I'll just use root as root
(0, 1/r5, 2/r5) (-(r5/r6), -(2/r30), 1/r30)
Enjoy, btw, if you reached 3 vectors... and the answer is still 2?
so they started with the vector (0,1,2) and applied GS than divided by the norm it looks like
x 1 0 x= -5 y -2 1 y= -2 z 1 2 z= 1 x 1 -1 x= -2 y -2 0 y= -2 z 1 1 z= -2 well, I crossed the normal to each vector just for kicks
the first one is the v1 x n
lets call the first cross b1 :) |b1| = r30
yep, first one seems like that is done at least.
-5/r30, -2/r30, 1/r30 for the binormal i found; you sure your secind is -r5 as a numerator?
yes, in the solution it's -r5/r6, -2/r30, 1/r30
I also got your answer btw, using the GS method.
i think thats too much of a coincedence to be wrong; maybe the answer key has a typo?
Yeah, should be safe to assume it is. I'll see what happens with the 3rd vector using the GS method, would be interesting.
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