find the eqn of normal to the curve y=(1+x)^y +sin inverse (sin^2 x) at x=0
@apoorvk , @Mani_Jha
looks like a nose http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=graph+y%3D%281%2Bx%29%5Ey+%2Bsin+inverse+%28sin%5E2+x%29
@asnaseer , @satellite73 , @TuringTest
Find dy/dx at x=0 Let the point be (0,b) Slope of normal: \[-1/(dy/dx)\] Equation of normal: \[(y-b)=(-1/(dy/dx))(x-0)\] Got it?
hmm. w8
this doesn't look easy.
Mani_jha is correct - spot on!
i will try tht and let u knw if i get stuck..anyway thx all
I think the question is more like, solve for y, then find dy/dx put the values of x,y on dy/dx then calculate the normal.
looks like it was that point mani mentioned was 0,1 I got crazy value for dy/dx ... please check it out.
experimentX: you can just use implicit derivative - no need to solve for y first.
still, the dy/dx will be interms of y, so y is needed at that point,
dy/dx will most likely be near 0 at x=0 by the looks of the curve
yeah ... but i got 1, y=1, ... looks like there must some error.
*m=1
\[y=(1+x)^y+\sin^{-1}(\sin^2(x))\]\[y'=y(1+x)^{y-1}*y'*1+\frac{\sin(2x)}{\sqrt{1-\sin^4(x)}}\]which leads to:\[y'=\frac{\sin(2x)}{(1+y(1+x)^{y-1})\sqrt{1-\sin^4(x)}}\]
unless I have made a mistake somewhere, this gives y'=0 at x=0
yeah ... it's zero, looks like i made mistake in taking dy/dx
does (x+1)^y work with chain rule??
I believe so
ready for the next qn?
I thought it was some what like x^x, or (1+x)^f(x) <--- though I am not quite sure on this.
just checked with the wolf - you could be right experimentX: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=differentiate+y%3D%281%2Bx%29^y+with+respect+to+x
i hope so.. still not getting the value of m. let me revise.
the derivative at x=0 works out to be equal to y.
?? I got the same result. dy/dx = 1 + 0
might be due to this crazy function http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=graph+y+%3D+%281%2Bx%29%5Ey
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