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OpenStudy (anonymous):
\[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} (1-cosx)/x^2\]
OpenStudy (slaaibak):
multiply with (1+ cos x)/(1 + cos x) and use the sin x/x -> 1 as x tends to zero
OpenStudy (anonymous):
1st step :by applying l'hopital rule it will be limx→0((1−cosx)/x)/(x2/x)
so it will be limx→0(sinx)/2x,
2nd step take half out so it will be : 1/2limx→0 sinx\x
3rd aproch to zero : 1/2 limx→0 (c0sx)
the final answer is 1/2
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Eyad - where exactly does this zero come from?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
the zero come from the tendency ,and the under the limit u fint x tends to ... ,and in this equation x→0 ..
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
and does sinx/x = cosx
OpenStudy (anonymous):
finds
OpenStudy (anonymous):
ok i see that part now
OpenStudy (anonymous):
sinx\x =1 ,and cos(0)=1
OpenStudy (anonymous):
thats good :)
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
so you just made sinx/x =1 then turned that one into cosine
OpenStudy (anonymous):
yes ,thats right .
OpenStudy (anonymous):
if you didnt want to have to look at it that way would it also have been correct to take the 1/2(1) and done it this way
OpenStudy (anonymous):
yea because u separated the half from the lim ,so at anyway it would give half .
OpenStudy (anonymous):
ok
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