Give an example of subsets X and Y of Real number such that all the following conditions are satisfied: (i) X and Y are not open, (ii) X∩Y=∅, (iii) X∪Y is open.
how about X is irrationals in the interval (0,1) and Y are the rationals in (0,1)
thank you...i have to check the conditions first..
sure it is fairly clear that \(X\cap Y=\emptyset\) since one is defined as what the other one isn't
Aren't both of those sets open?
not sure what your definition of open is, but it is also true that any open interval around a rational number contains and irrational, and vice versa
@KingGeorge one definition of open set is that any member of that set is contained in an open interval completely contained in the set. so no, rationals are not an open set
so,rationals number in (0,1) is open set or not??????
no
I'm not quite convinced they're closed yet. I could see the rationals being closed, but what about the irrationals?
same thing. any epsilon ball about any irrational number contains infinitely many rationals
Look at it this way. We know that a union of a finite number of closed sets is closed. Thus, \(X\cup Y\) must be closed if both sets are closed, but \((0, 1)\) is clearly an open set. This is a contradiction.
hold on a sec i am not suggesting that the rationals are closed
i just said they were not open
problem just says X and Y are not open it does not say X and Y are closed
I see. Yes. You are correct. I was getting my definitions mixed up.
how to prove that the union of X and Y is open?
because early we said that X and Y is not open.....
Every number in the set \((0, 1)\) is either rational or irrational. Thus, if we take the union of the two sets of rational and irrational numbers in that interval, we find that we must get every number in the interval \((0, 1)\). Since that set is open, the union is open.
ooo...ok....thanks.....
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