Ask your own question, for FREE!
Mathematics 6 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

I need help finding the P values for which this series converges.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\sum_{2}^{infinity}1/n(lnn)^P\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I thought it was just for any P>1 but assuming thats too obvious

OpenStudy (experimentx):

let's try taking ratio test. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ratio_test \[ \lim_{n->\infty} \frac{\frac{1}{(n+1)(\ln(1+n))^p}}{\frac{1}{n (\ln(n))^p}} < 1 \]

OpenStudy (experimentx):

\[ \lim_{n->\infty} \frac{n (\ln(n))^p}{(n+1) (\ln(n+1))^p } < 1\] \[ \lim_{n->\infty} \frac{(\ln(n))^p}{(\ln(n+1))^p } < \frac{n+1}{n}\] \[ \lim_{n->\infty} (\frac{\ln(n)}{\ln(n+1) })^p < \frac{n+1}{n}\] \[ \lim_{n->\infty} (\frac{\ln(n)}{\ln(n+1) })^p < 1 +\frac{1}{n}\] \[ \lim_{n->\infty} \frac{\ln(n)}{\ln(n+1) } < (1 +\frac{1}{n})^{1/p}\]

OpenStudy (experimentx):

http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=lim+n-%3Einf+ln%28n%29%2Fln%281%2Bn%29 the rhs is (1+1/inf)^(1/p) = (1)^(1/p) or 1 < 1 for p>1 ... doesn't make any sense.

OpenStudy (experimentx):

*p > 0

OpenStudy (experimentx):

seems to diverge to this value http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=lim+n-%3Einf+sum%5B1%2F%28n+%28ln+n%29%5En%29%2C+2%2C+n%5D

OpenStudy (zarkon):

it converges for p>1

OpenStudy (zarkon):

use the integral test

OpenStudy (zarkon):

here I'm assuming your sum is \[\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n[\ln(n)^p]}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Let \[ f(x) =\frac 1 {(x \ln x)^p} \] \[ \int_2^{c} f(x) dx= \frac{\ln ^{1-p}(2)-\ln ^{1-p}(c)}{p-1} \] The last expression has a finite limit when c goes to Infinity if p>1 Use the intgral test and conclude that p>1

OpenStudy (experimentx):

seems so ... but why did my ratio test failed?? How do I know when to use integral test??

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Sorry f is \[f(x) =\frac 1 {x( \ln x)^p} \] The rest is fine above.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

You keep tryimg until one works.

OpenStudy (zarkon):

the ratio and root tests don't always work...they can be inconclusive.

OpenStudy (experimentx):

Hahah ... if it fails (must diverge) ... or I get stupid logic like i got above (1 < 1^(1/p))??

OpenStudy (zarkon):

if the test is inconclusive then the sum could be finite or it could diverge for example \[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2+1}\] and \[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n+1}\] the ratio test is inconclusive in both cases but the first one converges and the second diverges.

OpenStudy (experimentx):

Thanks to you both ... it improved my understanding.

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!