seldamat Solve the differential: y''+[(1/x)*(y')]-[(1/x^2)*y]=ln(x) What would be the best way to approach a problem like this? Variation of parameters?
you stated from the last one:"I was thinking to solve, would be to write out x^2*yp''+x*yp'+yp = x^2*lnx as we solved for them - then equate the coefficients to the right hand side" much better now
this would have been sufficient for constant coeffs i beleive
yes, i am trying that now,
nm .. lol sooo should I just plug in then what?
but since our "coeffs" are functions, that wont be sufficient for our needs
recall that we solced the homogenous part: and im going to forgo the latex since thats alot of the slowdown yh = c1 x^-1 + c2 x = 0
since our coeffs are functions of x, and not constants; we let c1 and c2 equal arbitrary functions in x and equate this to the yp part
yup! i follow
yp = a(x) x^-1 + b(x) x yp' = -a(x) x^-2 + a'(x) x^-1 +b'(x) x + b(x)x' ----------------------------- -a(x) x^-2 + 0 + b(x) good so far?
yes i have that
yp'' = 2a(x) x^-3 - a'(x) x^-2 + b'(x) plug these values into the eq to simplify it such that it equates to x^2 ln(x)
yup that is what im working on now
yup so i get teh same answer= -A' + B'x^2 = x^2*ln(x)
x^2 yp'' = 2a(x) x^-1 - a'(x) + b'(x) x^2 + x yp' = -a(x) x^-1 + b(x) x - yp = -a(x) x^-1 -b(x) x --------------------------------- x^2 ln(x) = - a'(x) + b'(x) x^2
good, now we have 2 equations in A' and B' to solve for a system of eqs
yh and the equation above?
yes
so yh = A'x^-1 + B'x = 0
yes, and with any luck our longest version of this method is accurate lol for our yp in A' and B'
sooo i got B' = ln(x) / 2 A' = (-ln(x)/2)^2
er minus on the outside
A' = -(ln(x)/2)^2 B' = ln(x)/2
if that looks right im gonna try and solve for y
you have to find A and B so integrate thos
yup, just realized that as i started to plug in
i can show u how to do it by variation of parameters if u want,, i think its easier in this case
this is variation of paramenters; the long version
he hasnt gotten to the wronskian method yet
oh lol i saw the letters i assumed its undetermined coeffecients,, never mind:)
the wronskian sounds easier (still working, solving for A now - had to brush up on integration by parts lol)
i had to go to paper to keep track of things :) i get: a' = -x^2 ln(x) b' = ln(x)/(1-x)
|a' = |-x^2 ln(x) = -ln(x) x^3/3 - | -x^3/3x = -ln(x) x^3/3 +| x^2/3 \(\large = \frac{x^3(1-3ln(x))}{9}\)
the wolf says we end up with: y = c1 x^-1 + c2 x - ln(x)
i got something different
still simplifying though
yeah, my mathing is off somplace i think
the wronskian is way way better for this mess :/
y = c1x^-1 + c2x + ln^2(x) - 2ln(x) + (x^2*ln(x)-x) / 2
where A' = ln^2(x)/4 and B' = ln(x) / 2
B = 1/2*(ln(x) - x) A = [ln^2(x)]*x - integrand(x*2ln(x)*1/x dx) (integration by parts) solve and you get A = ln^2(x)*x - 2*x(ln(x) -1 )
dbl chk your system of eqs for a' and b'
yea i'm pretty sure that they are right
A' and B' that is
\[\begin{align}x^{-1}A'+xB' &= 0\\-x^{-1}A'+1B' &= ln(x)\end{align}\]
(1+x)B' = ln(x) B' = ln(x)/(1+x)
x^-1A' = -xB' A' = -x^2 B'
how did you get -A'/x + B = ln(x)
that was the end results of the plugging and playing with the yp and its derivatives
[-A'+2A/x + B'x^2] + [-A/x + B/x] - [A/x + Bx] = x^2*ln(x)
-A' x + B'x^2 = x^2 ln(x) ; divide off the x^2 -A'/x + B' = ln(x)
then -A' + 2A/x - 2A/x + B'x^2 + Bx - Bx = x^2 * ln(x)
-A'x at the start, see your typo
the first expression i sent is after you distribute the x^2 - once you do that, you lose the x on A'
x/x^2 = 1/x
-A' x/x^2 = -A/x
x^2(yp'') = x^2 ( 2Ax^-3 - x^-2A' + B')
yeah, i just seen that lol
prolly why my results were so ugly ...
haha its ok, my result is ugly too
a'/x + b' x = 0 <-- * -/x -a'/x^2 + b' = ln(x) -a'/x^2 - b' x = 0 -a'/x^2 + b' = ln(x) -------------------- -2a'/x^2 = ln(x) a' = -ln(x)/2 -ln(x)/2x^2 - b' x = 0 -ln(x)/2x - b' = 0 -ln(x)/2x^3 = b' now whatd i miss on that :)
other than the x^2 .....
a' = -ln(x)/2 * x^2 right?
a' = -x^2 ln(x)/2 -x^2 ln(x)/2x + b' x = 0 : /x -x^2 ln(x)/2x^2 + b' = 0 -ln(x)/2 + b' = 0 b' = ln(x)/2 .....maybe?
i have a theory; since i had to make room for the wronskian method; i had to forget alot of algebra in the process :)
i suck at alegbra... lol so I should have tons of room for the wronskian i hope (according to your theory :P )
i need to eat some lunch.. im out of brain juice, then ill com eback to check work and see if there are any obvious errors
i looked at the wolfram solution - it has imaginary numbers in it ...
ok brb before i starve myself
|b'= | ln(x)/2 = x ln(x)/2 - | x/2x = x ln(x)/2 - x/2 |a' =|-x^2 ln(x)/2 = -x^3 ln(x)/6 + | x^3/6x = -x^3 ln(x)/6 + x^3/18 a/x = -x^2 ln(x)/6 + x^2/18 +bx = x^2 ln(x)/2 - x^2/2 ----------------------------- yp = x^2/2 (1-3ln(x)+9ln(x)-9) yp = x^2/2 (6ln(x)-8) = x^2 (3ln(x)-4) but typing and mathing fractions and such aint my forte so youd better double chk it :)
I checked it btw - and it worked like a charm. Thank you so much! I've learned a lot you know.
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