Use the definition to determine whether {(-1)^n} is a Cauchy sequence ?
i know it is not a Cauchy sequence because it is not converges. But how we show it by definition of Cauchy theorem?
anyone?
The idea of a Cauchy sequence is that the difference between numbers gets arbitrarily small far enough into the sequence. So formally, for some N we have for all n>N: \[|a_n-a_{n-1}|<\epsilon\] for any epsilon Does that happen here?
what thomas said. also it is important to know how to negate the definition. a sequence is NOT cauchy if...
if \[\left[a _{n}-a _{n-1} \right]>\epsilon\] for some n>N
cauchy if for all \(\epsilon>o\) there is an N such that for all m, n> N \(|a_n-a_m|<\epsilon\)
to negate the definition, change "for all" to "there exists" and negate the conclusion sequence is not cauchy if there exists an \(\epsilon\) such that for all N if m, n > N we have \(|a_n-a_m|>\epsilon\)
you get to pick the epsilon, and i think \(\frac{1}{2}\) would work nicely
yeah..that's correct...i will try it with epsilon 1/2..
to be more precise i should have written not cauchy if there exists an \(\epsilon\) such that for all N there exists n,m > N with \(|a_n-a_n|>\epsilon\)
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