use the second fundamental theorem of calculus to find the derivative.
\[\int\limits_{4}^{2(x^2)+5?}t^3+1dt\]
\[\int\limits_{4}^{2(x^2) +5}t^3 +1 dt\] sorry this is what it should look like, no question mark
well i got taken to task for answering a question like this before, but no matter, i will answer again first off the derivative of the integral is the integrand, so if you simply had \[f(x)=\int_4^xt^3+1dt\] the derivative would be \[f'(x)=x^3+1\]
but instead you have \[f(2x^2+5)=\int_4^{2x^2+5}t^3+1dt\] so you have to find the derivative using the chain rule, as you would for any composite function \[f(g(x))\]
replace \(t\) in the integrand by \(2x^2+5\) and then multiply by the derivative of \(2x^2+5\)
so the lower bound "4" has no bearing on finding the derivative?
no it is a constant. if you had \[\int_{2x}^{x^2}f(t)dt\] would be a different storyb
the lower limit of 4 determines the constant, and the derivative of a constant is zero
Ok that actually agrees with the other problems I have done. I guess I am just confused on the second fundemental theorem of calculus. The fundemental theorem is used to find the net change or posative area under a curve right? Then what is the purpose of the second fundemental theorem? My book doesn't explain it well
the "second fundamental theorem" says in english " the derivative of the integral is the integrand"
make sure to think of \[\int_a^xf(t)dt\] as a function of \(x\) as in \[F(x)=\int_a^x f(t)dt\] and so what the theorem tells you is that \[F'(x)=f(x)\]
for example, if i had \[\int_1^x2t^2+1dt\] then i know that if we put \[F(x)=\int _1^x 2t^2+1dt\] then \[F'(x)=2x^2+1\]
so it is really just a wy of taking an integral and finding its prime function?
I don't want to sound dumb but what does that apply to?
it also happens that we know another function with the same derivative, namely \[G(x)=\frac{2}{3}x^3+x\] and therefore \[F(x)=\int_1^x 2t^2+tdt=G(x)=\frac{2}{3}x^3+x+C\] this is what gives you the first fundamental theorem
what the theorem says is that if you have any reasonable ( integrable) function, that you can find its anti derivative, namely the integral
so you can use the second fundamental theorem to find the prime function, then integrate and arrive at the original function?
I didn't think of it like that. So its kind of like how you use logarithms to find exponetial functions and vise versa, this is a way to take an definite integal and revert to the original function?
you probably know that \[\int_a^bf(t)dt=F(b)-F(a)\] where F is an anti derivative of \(f\) and the reason this is true is by the second fundamental theorem, so it should really be called the first one
so yes, since the derivative of the integral is the integrand it means if we can find ANOTHER such function (anti derivative) then it allows us an easy method to evaluate the integral, as in my example above
two functions have the same derivative so they differ by a constant. i have to run but let me finish with the example above
ok
the two functions \[\int_1^x2t^2+1dt\] and \[\frac{2}{3}x^3+x\] both have the same derivative, namely \[f(x)=2x^2+1\]
therefore we know that \[G(x)=\frac{2}{3}x^2+x+C=\int_1^xt^2+1dt\]
the one on the right is the one we want to evaluate say we want \[\int_1^2t^2+1dt\] but it is hard to evaluate an integral, easy to evaluate a polynomial, so instead we evaluate \[G(2)\]
we only have to solve for the constant, and since \[\int _1^1t^2+1dt=0\] we know that \(G(1)=0\) and therefore \(C=-(\frac{2}{3}+1)\)and hence the integral can be computed by \[G(x)-G(1)\] as in first fundamental theorem
thanks for your help
yw
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