SQUEEZE THEOREM........... when talking about SQUEEZE THEOREM, why we consider open interval only ? i will provide an image if any doubt in question.
http://www.google.co.in/search?sourceid=chrome&ie=UTF-8&q=when+talking+about+SQUEEZE+THEOREM%2C+why+we+consider+open+interval+only+%3Fi+will+provide+an+image+if+any+doubt+in+question. u r answer^&^ go to the link!
WHY DON'T we take closed interval too ?
somebody help me plz
The squeeze theorem states that if we have something like \[f(x) \le g(x) \le h(x)\] If \[f(x)\lim_{x \rightarrow a} = h(x)\lim_{x \rightarrow a}=L\] Then \[g(x)lim_{x \rightarrow a} = L\]
hey zepp... i take a look at u have explained . :)
yah.. u r right but when we write the theorem why we take only open intervals why not closed?
If not, there's not solution when x approches a.
What do you mean?
i have sent an image took a look at that explanation.. .... can the intervals be closed?
i got ur point . really thanks :) :) thanks a lot for helping :)
The interval doesn't really matter, we only want the value of y when something is approaching some value of x What it is trying to say is that in this interval that contain the point x, we have the limit of the functions. You are welcome :)
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