the limit as x goes to 0 of (x^(-1))/((ln(x))^2)
0
\[\frac{1}{x (ln{x})^2} \]This limit DNE I think :-)
Can't be 0...
It approaches -infinity from 0-, +infinity from 0+
L'hopitals doesn't apply, does it? I can't remember if you're allowed to use L'hopital's in the case of \[\frac{\infty}{-\infty}\]
\[ \lim_{x\to0^-}\dfrac{1}{x(\ln(x))^2}=-\infty\\ \lim_{x\to0^+}\dfrac{1}{x(\ln(x))^2}=\infty \]
Ah yes. What he said.
It does not, right? The limit is of the form 1/infinity.
Typo 1/0*
sorry my mistake, the anwer is infinity, just misread 0 for infinity
The answer isn't infinity either, the two-sided limit doesn't exist.
Wait... I'm not sure I agree with the left limit. Does it have a left limit? What happens when you try to evaluate that logarithm...
I did on the complex plane. Still, the limit DNE even if we are working with only R, we don't have the two sided limit, IMO.
haha this is math, bmp. Your opinion doesn't enter into it.
I agree though. I'm inclined to say DNE.
I was stating my opinion for the reason. That might not be the explanation for it, anyway, on R. But I don't think this exists.
Don't mind me. I'm just being overly snarky.
No problem, mate. You are right, I have to avoid using IMO, it's just an old vice :-)
Could either of you tell me how you got to that because I know L.H is needed but I don't know how to apply it to this
Well the only way I see of applying L'Hopital's is like this: First of all, it only makes sense to consider the right hand limit. ln(x) does not exist for x<0. Don't rewrite the problem, but keep it as: \[\frac{\frac{1}{x}}{(\ln{x})^2}\] The reason for this is that it means the limit as x approaches 0 will be of indeterminate form infinity/infinity, which allows me to use L'Hopitals rule. So now I just take the derivative of the top and bottom, which gives: \[\frac{\frac{-1}{x^2}}{2\ln(x)*\frac{1}{x}}\] At this point, I'd simplify that and apply L'Hopital's rule again.
That simplified gives: \[\frac{\frac{-x}{x^2}}{2\ln(x)}= \frac{\frac{-1}{x}}{2\ln(x)}\] Notice that as x approaches 0, this is of indeterminate form -infinity/-infinity. Apply L'hopital's rule to get: \[\frac{\frac{1}{x^2}}{\frac{2}{x}} = \frac{x}{2x^2} = \frac{1}{2x}\] Which clearly approaches infinity.
And finally, gasp for air.
It seems that, doing only for R, the limit approaches infinity then. :-) Well done @SmoothMath
=D
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