help with integrals
the integral from [a,b]=[0,6] therefore the answer is (b)
for the first part a, it's 4*(-1/2 the area of a circle of radius 1)
hi andrea is that a circle or just like a sine wave
its an area from [0,2] + an area from [2,6] = area from [0,6] therefore ( b)
its a sine wave
nah looks like a circle to me
it is 2 circles from 0 to 1 it is a circle of radius 1, then from 2 to 6 it is another circle of radius 2 yeah
i'd bet the first one is \(-2\pi\)
yes
oh i thougth this question was old
did you get all the answers?
no the first one was corret
im not sure how you got that though
oh allow me to explain
you have half a circle, with radius 1. the whole circle would have area \(\pi r^2=\pi\) but you only have half the circle, so the area is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) but of course it is below the x axis so it is negative and therfore the integral \[\int_0^2f(x)dx=-\frac{\pi}{2}\] and therefore \[\int_0^24f(x)dx=4\int_0^2f(x)dx=4\times (-\frac{\pi}{2})=-2\pi\]
now \[\int_2^6f(x)dx=\frac{1}{2}\pi (2)^2=2\pi\] i.e. again you have half a circle with radius 2 so area is half of \(4\pi\)
you were not asked for that integral i know but you were asked for \[\int_0^64f(x)dx=4\int_0^2f(x)dx+4\int_2^6f(x)dx=-2\pi+8\pi=6\pi\]
similar reasoning solves the other ones
you got this? whole idea is to break it up in to pieces that you know the area of, and them piece them together. problem made more annoying by these stupid unnecessary constants like 4 and 5
i think i have it thank you
ok good. next one you are going to have to take one quarter of the circles and don't forget that area below the curve shows up negative
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