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Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

If I have a function \(f(x)\) that is continuous and differentiable\((-\infty,\infty)\), its Taylor series\[\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{f^n(a)}{n!}\left(x-a\right)^n\] should always converge as regardless of what value \(x-a\) may take, \(n!,\,n\to\infty\) takes priority, right? So I can generalize and say all functions can be expressed as a converging series?

OpenStudy (blockcolder):

Not really. The Taylor series of (1+x)^k doesn't converge outside (-1,1).

OpenStudy (blockcolder):

Also, here's a function to consider: \[\large f(x)= \begin{cases} e^{-1/{x^2}} &; x\neq0\\ 0 &;x=0 \end{cases}\]

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