I have a continuous function f for all x in R satisfied \[\int_{-\infty}^{x} {f(u)du}\]\ for all x in R. \[\f>0\]\ for all x in R?
What is your question exactly??
let me get this straight...\[f:\forall x\in\mathbb R\]we have\[\int_{-\infty}^{x}f(u)du\]and you want to know if that means \[f>0:\forall x\in\mathbb R\]?
my question : \[\forall x \in \mathbb{R}, f>0\]. True or false?
are you told any more info, like that the integral converges or something?
Sorry, the above integral >0 \[\forall x \in \mathbb{R}\]
so we have the full question as: for\[f:\forall x\in\mathbb R\]we have\[\int_{-\infty}^{x}f(u)du>0\]does this mean that \[\forall x\in\mathbb R,~f>0\]?
Additionally,f is continuous. Does \[f>0, \forall x \in \mathbb{R}\]?
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\(f\) does not have to be positive for all values of \(x\)
Can you give me an example?
Can we take the derivative of this inequality with respect to x: \[ \frac{d}{dx} (\int_{-\infty}^{x} f(u)du) > \frac{d}{dx}(0) \]? Or is it unnecessary?
\[\int_{\infty}^x(\sin(x)+\frac{1}{2})dx\] could do it
that integral does not converge for ant value of x
*any
oh no it won't do it since it wont
what zarkon said
try making a function f that looks like this... |dw:1336239261616:dw|
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