Define g:R->Z by the rule g(x)=9x+5 Is g(x) bijective function?? Prove or disprove
You can write down the defition of bijective function for g:R -> Z 1. f is injective function if for all x,y in R, if \[f(x_1)=f(x_2)\], then \[x_1=x_2\] 2. f is surjection if for all y in Z, there exists x in R such that \[y=f(x)\]
So kindly tell do you agree or disagree?? and what about g(x)=9x+5 What is confusing me is that for a function to be bijective, number of elements in R must be equal to number of elements in Z but R is an infinite set (correct me if i am wrong) and Z is not. So how can they be bijective? plus when I put values from domain i.e R in g(x) I do not get value i.e. output g(x) in the range of Z. Kindly please remove my confusion
No, Z is also infinite.
Ask yourself whether any integer can be produced from a real number given the function.
Bijective means that the function must be one-to-one. For every value of x there is exactly one value of y.
What you trying to prove here is that any value put into this function will remain an integer.
(1)So we are not concerned with the range of the output??? for example put x=0.0005 the g(x)=9(0.0005)+5 is not the element of Z So it is not a function (2)but as all of you are saying function is bijective due to one to one correspondence between R and Z which perspective should I follow (1) or (2)??
It doesn't matter that not all of the outputs are integers; it matters whether all integers can be produced.
O is that so!!! Thank u very much blockcoder, sashley and ankh for ur help and time.
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