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Mathematics 19 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

TRUE/FALSE?? EXPLAIN! :) 3. In large data sets (1,000 or more values), the mean is always one of the data values

OpenStudy (anonymous):

LAST question! pleaaassee SOMEBODY? :'c

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I'd say false. Suppose you have 1,000 values, 500 of which are 1 and 500 of which are 3. Then the mean would be 2. This is assuming the values don't all need to be unique. But if they need to be unique, you could do something like 1, 1001, 2, 1000, 3, 999, 4, 998, etc., which will also average to the same amount, 501, without 501 necessarily being one of the 1000 values.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oohh hmmm that makes since! thanks for your help and consideration! :) I appreciate it :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

why would it be true 1000 or more and not 999 or less ?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I knew it was false i just didnt really know how to explain it.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

now you got it

OpenStudy (anonymous):

now you got best answer. ;) thanks :)

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