Find the radiance of convergence. sum_{n=1}^{infty} e^{-n^2}x^{n} is the radius 0? I used the root test and the one of the limit goes to 0..
\[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} e^{-n^2}x^{n}\]
the radius of convergence of the infinite series is 1 by the root test.
do you understand?
abs(e^-n x)<1 then absx<inf R=inf
for all x converge
\[ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} e^{-n^2}x^{n} \]By ratio test: \[ \frac{e^{-(n+1)^2x^{n+1}}}{x^ne^{-n^2}} = x \frac{e^{-(n+1)^2}}{e^{-n^2}} = 0\]So R = infinity, no?
you shold test root thats beter i did
your prove is said r=inf also
so can I assume that whenever the limit goes to 0, R = infinity?
I agree, but both yield the same result, after computing the limit, we will reach 0 < 1, which is true and shows that R = infinity. And, yeah, I was writing, didn't see your post ;-)
@Dumboy You should think it like this: We got 0 and we want that the limit < 1 in order for the series to converge. For which values of x is 0 < 1? All of them, so R = infinity. So, yeah, if the limit goes to 0, you will get your answer as R = inf.
it means for all real x you have 0<1 a true
mahmit had it correct in his first post, and e^-n will go to 1 as x goes to infinity, so we get abs value of x is less than 1, so the radius is 1.
there is no limit for x cause x is disappeared
how did x disappear?
dont worry just believe!
using the root test leaves the abs. value of x is less than 1
yeas are the same limit
but the radius of convergence can't be infinity unless we do the limiting process and end up with a number that is less than 1, but we don't, we get x, correct?
No, we get 0 :-)
for all x correct means x belonging to all real
and we do get 0 and 0,1 so r = infinity, ok
ok E.x<1 then x<1/E and E go to 0 so x<inf
R = inf
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