Question

What?? D:

Can somebody explain why this is possible?

Answer 1

The proof involves dividing by 0. Namely, \(x-x=0\)

Answer 2

Oh, I see, thanks :)

Answer 3

You're welcome.

Answer 4

yes they are a lot of these 1=2 "proofs" out there and they involve dividing by 0 in some way
the premise was 0=0 to begin with

Answer 5

Aight, because that looks credible at the first glance :[

Answer 6

Here's a personal favorite\[\large e={e^{2 \pi i \over 2\pi i}}=(e^{2\pi i})^{1 \over 2\pi i}=1^{1 \over 2\pi i}=1\]

Answer 7

haven't seen that one...little harder to spot the flaw

Answer 8

Can't see it o.O

Answer 9

i believe this is why
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/De_Moivre%27s_formula#Failure_for_non-integer_powers
since power here is 1/i2pi
theorem does not hold

i could be wrong i guess

Answer 10

To the best of my knowledge, \[\large 1^{1 \over 2\pi i}=1\]The error occurs elsewhere.