please help my double integration
Question ??
\[\int\limits_{0}^{2 pi} \int\limits_{0}^{1-\cos \theta}y^3\cos^2\theta dy d \theta\]
@ shivam_bhalla can you please help me this?
yes sure. First integrate \[ \int\limits\limits_{0}^{1-\cos \theta}y^3\cos^2\theta d \theta\] In this case y is a constant, so take it out \[ y^3\int\limits\limits_{0}^{1-\cos \theta}\cos^2\theta d \theta\] Then the resulting expression , integrate with respect to dy keeping theta as constant
then whats next?
Did you also do the following I mentioned above : "Then the resulting expression , integrate with respect to dy keeping theta as constant" ?
the cos now will become sin^2
@roselynECE , no
@shivam_bhalla I think you are doing it backwards
@TuringTest , does it matter ??
( a doubt only)
the bounds on y are\[0\le y\le1-\cos\theta\]yes it matters a lot if you do it the other way you won't get a constant for an answer
please show me how?
Thanks @TuringTest . I tried to follow wikipedia. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Multiple_integral#Double_integral @roselynECE , integration of cos^2 theta is not sin^2 (theta)
you should write\[ \cos^2(\theta)= \frac{1+\cos 2(\theta)}{2}\] and then try to integrate
you work from the inside out\[\int_0^{2\pi}\left[\int_0^{1-\cos\theta}y^3dy\right]\cos^2\theta d\theta\]first do the integral in the brackets
the first integral is with respect to dy, so we can treat everything else as constant, as shivam said this is going to get ugly it looks like though
@TuringTest , here you have to follow wopposite of FOIL, right ??
well it's going to be (1-cosx)^4 so you are going to have to expand that sucker with the binomial theorem or something I guess :S then use your formula to reduce out the squares and such
there is probably a faster way to do it, but I can't see how offhand
@TuringTest , the binomial expansion is the only way.(in my opinion) Secondly. Do you have to follow opposite of FOIL in double integrals, right ??
not sure what you mean by the "opposite of foil" you mean like factoring x^2+2x+1=(x+1)^2 ??
@TuringTest , got the easier way we can write 1-cos (theta) = 2 sin^2( theta/2 )
nice :) I think that will pay off
@TuringTest , I meant that you have into integrate as inner part first and outer part later. Everytime, right ??
yes, unless you are integrating over a rectangle then you can actually separate the integrals
@TuringTest , can you suggest a guide for this ??
you could always switch the bounds too, but that sometimes makes the integral impossible
yeah hold on, I'm looking one up
http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcIII/IteratedIntegrals.aspx I always refer people to Paul's notes lol
Thanks a lot @TuringTest
no problem, happy learning @shivam_bhalla :)
@roselynECE if you are still stuck I suggest you just do that integral in the brackets for starters
how about this int_{(0)^(6)} int_{(0)^(12-2y)} int_{(0)^(4-(2/3)(y)-(x/3)} x dz dx dy
\[ \int_0^6\int_0^{12-2y} \int_0^{4-(2/3)(y)-(x/3)} x dz dx dy\]???
OMG, that we would be ultra complicated
ugly ugly...
that x in front is going to make this especially hideous please post this question separately anyway did I type it right?
i think like this: |dw:1337268076022:dw|
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