Measure theory question
Ω=(0,1] My question is that how come the A^c = (0,a_1]U(a'_1, a_2]U.....U(a'_m-1, a_m]U(a'_m, 1] ?????? because lets say that A= {(0,0.1], (0.2, 0.3], (0.4, 0.5], (0.6, 0.7], (0.8, 1]} then A^c = Ω - A A^c = (0, 1] - {(0,0.1], (0.2, 0.3], (0.4, 0.5], (0.6, 0.7], (0.8, 1]} A^c = ∅ .........an empty set?????????? You can see this example at http://books.google.co.uk/books?id=a...ngsley&f=false Example no 2.2 (section: Probability Measure), page 21.
@KingGeorge @SmoothMath any clue?
please see the attached pic
When you go from A^c = (0, 1] - {(0,0.1], (0.2, 0.3], (0.4, 0.5], (0.6, 0.7], (0.8, 1]} to A^c = ∅ Notice that it should actually be A^c = {(0.1, 0.2], (0.3, 0.4], (0.5, 0.6], (0.7, 0.8]}
correct but the text says that A^c = (0,a_1]U(a'_1, a_2]U.....U(a'_m-1, a_m]U(a'_m, 1] which means A^c have 0 & 1 whereas 0 & 1 should be removed
Could you possibly put another link up to the book? Preferably without any dot dot dots. The current link isn't working for me
Example no 2.2 (section: Probability Measure), page 21.
As far as I can tell, A^c doesn't actually contain 0 at all. Nor does it have to contain the neighborhood. For example, if I chose A=(0, .5] then A^c=(0, 1] - (0, .5] Which according to their notation, would be A^c=(0, 0)U(.5, 1]=(.5, 1]
It's a similar thing if A contains 1. It then forces the last interval of A^c to be \((1, 1] =\emptyset\)
so the complement given in text is wrong?
@KingGeorge ?????
I don't think it's wrong, just a way of writing it that isn't totally natural.
sorry I didn't get you can you please explain that what the heck is in text :|
For some reason, the actual book isn't showing me the pages you're looking at, so I'm having to go by the little snippet you included. If I'm reading correctly, it's defining the complement of A in the interval (0, 1] = \(\Omega\). So suppose \(A\in \Omega\). This means that \(A=(a_1, a_1']\cup...\cup(a_m, a_m']\in\Omega\) such that \(i<j \implies a_i<a_j\). Then, the complement \(A^c\) is defined as \[A^c = \Omega-A=(0, a_1]\cup(a_1', a_2]\cup...\cup(a_m', 1]\]
yes correct
I have attached the whole example
The issue you seem to be having with this appears to be "what if \(a_1=0\)" and "what if \(a_m'=1\)." If \(a_1=0\), then \[A^c =(0, 0]\cup(a_1', a_2]\cup...\cup(a_m', 1]=(a_1', a_2]\cup...\cup(a_m', 1]\]since \((0, 0]=\emptyset\). Likewise, if \(a_m'=1\) we have \[A^c =(0, a_1]\cup(a_1', a_2]\cup...\cup(1, 1]=(0, a_1]\cup...\cup(a_{m-1}', a_m]\]since \((1, 1]=\emptyset\)
Does this make more sense to you?
got it thanks a tonne
You're welcome.
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