Use the properties of integrals to verify the inequality.
For the first problem, note that since x goes from 0 to 1:\[0<\cos(x)\le 1\]This tells us that:\[x^2\cos(x)\le x^2 \]for that interval. Now we take the integral of both sides:\[x^2\cos(x)\le x^2 \Longrightarrow \int\limits_0^1x^2 \cos(x)dx\le \int\limits_0^1x^2 dx\]The right integral is easier to solve.
how did you get from \[0<x<1 \to 0<\cos(x)<1\]
i plug cos into 0 and 1 and i get 1<cosx<0.54
i understand the steps after that but im confused on 0<x<1→0<cos(x)<1
did you look at the cos(x) graph to see that 0<cos(x)<1 from [0,1]
is that how
oh sry, i wasnt looking at the thread, my bad >.< that is right, when you plug in 0 you get 1, and when you plug in 1 you get .54 What i was trying to say was that for x between 0 and 1, cos is always positive, and its value is less than or equal to 1. you can disregard the 0<cosx<1 thing.
what mistakes i made on 41 \[pi/4\le x \le pi/2 \] \[\sin \le 1\] \[\sin(x)/x \le x^-1\] \[\int\limits_{pi/4}^{pi/2}\sin(x)/x \le \int\limits_{pi/4}^{pi/2} x^-1\] \[\int\limits\limits_{pi/4}^{pi/2}\sin(x)/x \le 0\]
i mean 42
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