On the Problem Set 1: Question 1A - 6 b) How did they get there ? Here's the link : - Problem: http://ocw.mit.edu/courses/mathematics/18-01sc-single-variable-calculus-fall-2010/part-a-definition-and-basic-rules/problem-set-1/MIT18_01SC_pset1prb.pdf - Solution: http://ocw.mit.edu/courses/mathematics/18-01sc-single-variable-calculus-fall-2010/part-a-definition-and-basic-rules/problem-set-1/MIT18_01SC_pset1sol.pdf
If you set x = 0, then you have sin(x) - cos(x) = (0) - (1) = -1. And you have a amplitude sqrt(2), so at x = 0 your y = \[-\frac{1}{\sqrt2} = -\frac{\sqrt2}{2}\]. Looking at the unit circle you can see that sin(-pi/4) give you this value. At least that is how I did it.
Use the identity sin (A-B) = sin A cos B - cos A sin B We want\[\sin x-\cos x=(\sin x) \times1-(\cos x)\times1\] There is no place where sin and cos both equal 1, sin and cos are equal at pi/4
\[\sqrt{2}\times \sin (\pi/4) = 1\]\[\sqrt{2}\times \cos (\pi/4) = 1\]
So we multiply sin(A-B) by √2 and A=x and B=π/4
Thank a lot for your help!
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