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For binomial distribution: E[X] = n(pi) and variance is n(pi)(1-pi). How do i prove variance?
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really the same technique as deriving the the mean
compute \[\mathbf{E} [X(X-1)]\]
E[X^2 - X] = E[X^2] - E[X?]
and then expand from there?
compute it using the pdf of the binomial
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of pmf if you prefer that notation
Ok. Thank you very much. I shall keep that in mind in todays exam
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